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Question #47694
The Question
An organ transplant patient on regular Cyclosporin A therapy is bitten by an infected female Anopheles mosquito. Despite a high rate of erythrocytic schizogony and continuous release of hemozoin, the patient does not exhibit the classical recurring chills and high fever. What is the primary biological reason for this masked clinical presentation?
Options
- A.
Cyclosporin A directly neutralizes the toxic effects of hemozoin in the bloodstream.
- B.
The drug inhibits T-cell activation, blunting the cytokine-mediated pyrogenic response normally triggered by hemozoin.
- C.
Cyclosporin A prevents the rupture of infected erythrocytes, trapping hemozoin intracellularly.
- D.
The immunosuppressant shifts the parasite's life cycle entirely to the exo-erythrocytic phase in the liver.
Check Your Answer
Correct Answer
Step-by-Step Solution
Explanation
How the Examiner Thinks
Comparative_Analysis
Sharpen your ability to evaluate multiple scenarios and distinguish between competing potential answers.
Concepts Behind This Question
Cyclosporin A Immunomodulation|ADA Deficiency Genetic Correction|Gene Therapy Germline vs Somatic
Why This Question Is Tricky
Common Mistakes
Conceptual Pivot: Students often rote-learn the NCERT line 'hemozoin causes chills and fever' without understanding the underlying immunology—that fever is a host immune response to the toxin.
By introducing Cyclosporin A, the question tests the synthesis of two different NCERT chapters and the realization that suppressing the host's immune system will mask the symptoms of the disease, even if the parasitic load remains high.
Quick Facts About This Question
Question Information
| Subject | Biology |
| Chapter | Microbes in Human Welfare - Class 12 |
| Concept | Cyclosporin A Immunomodulation |
| Difficulty | 8 |
| Cognitive Load | 5 |
| Target Solve Time | 120 sec |
| Access | Free |