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Question #47387

Difficulty: 8/10 | 🟢 Free

The Question

A 68-year-old post-menopausal woman presents with a progressive loss of height and a hunched posture (kyphosis). Radiography of her axial skeleton reveals significant structural changes. Based on NCERT principles of skeletal disorders, which of the following best explains the primary pathogenesis responsible for her loss of height?

Options

  • A.

    Her height loss is due to the erosion of articular cartilage between the vertebrae, a hallmark of age-related osteoarthritis.

  • B.

    Her height loss results from micro-architectural deterioration and decreased bone mass in the vertebrae, primarily driven by estrogen deficiency.

  • C.

    Her condition is caused by the autoimmune destruction of the synovial membranes within the 80 bones of the axial skeleton.

  • D.

    Her condition is a result of uric acid crystal accumulation in the intervertebral discs, leading to joint space narrowing.

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Correct Answer

Step-by-Step Solution

Explanation

How the Examiner Thinks

Comparative_Analysis

Sharpen your ability to evaluate multiple scenarios and distinguish between competing potential answers.

Concepts Behind This Question

Osteoporosis vs. Arthritis|Axial Skeleton Count|Calcium Homeostasis

Why This Question Is Tricky

Common Mistakes

Conceptual Pivot: Differentiating the physical vs. functional anatomy of skeletal disorders.

Students often conflate 'joint space narrowing' (Arthritis) with 'vertebral bone mass loss' (Osteoporosis) as causes for age-related height reduction.

The trap lies in distinguishing between articular cartilage degradation and trabecular bone deterioration in the axial skeleton.

Quick Facts About This Question

Question Information

SubjectBiology
ChapterLocomotion and Movement - Class 11
ConceptAxial Skeleton Count
Difficulty8
Cognitive Load5
Target Solve Time120 sec
AccessFree