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Question #45575

Difficulty: 8/10 | 🟢 Free

The Question

Regarding the pathogenesis of HIV and its progression from an asymptomatic infection (STI) to Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome (STD), which of the following statements is INCORRECT?

Options

  • A.

    The virus evades complete immune clearance by utilizing macrophages as a persistent viral factory, where viral DNA integrates into the host genome.

  • B.

    The transition from STI to STD is marked by a critical depletion of CD4+ Helper T-cells, which are destroyed during viral progeny release.

  • C.

    The failure to mount an effective active immune response against opportunistic infections is due to the direct viral destruction of both Cytotoxic T-cells and B-lymphocytes.

  • D.

    The presence of anti-HIV antibodies in the host's serum indicates an infection but fails to neutralize the intracellular viral reservoirs, allowing disease progression.

Check Your Answer

Correct Answer

Step-by-Step Solution

Explanation

How the Examiner Thinks

Regulatory_Failure

Understand how NOT, EXCEPT, and logical constraints are used to manipulate exam results.

Concepts Behind This Question

STI_vs_STD_Distinction|Active_vs_Passive_Immunity

Why This Question Is Tricky

Common Mistakes

Conceptual Pivot: Target Specificity vs.

Systemic Failure.

Students often confuse the overall failure of the immune system (which involves B-cells and Cytotoxic T-cells) with the direct cellular target of HIV.

The trap relies on the misconception that because humoral and cell-mediated immunity fail, the virus must be directly destroying the effector cells (B and Tc cells).

However, NCERT strictly specifies that HIV targets and destroys Helper T-cells (CD4+), causing an indirect, cascading collapse of the entire immune network.

Quick Facts About This Question

Question Information

SubjectBiology
ChapterReproductive Health - Class 12
ConceptSTI vs STD Distinction
Difficulty8
Cognitive Load5
Target Solve Time120 sec
AccessFree