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Question #45568
The Question
A sterile female patient with a hyperactive cell-mediated immune system is recommended GIFT (Gamete Intrafallopian Transfer) using donor ova. To prevent the potential rejection of the allogenic gametes, a practitioner suggests administering Cyclosporin A. Which of the following is the most scientifically accurate reason to reject this suggestion?
Options
- A.
Cyclosporin A is a potent teratogen that disrupts embryonic development, and the female reproductive tract naturally facilitates maternal tolerance without systemic immunosuppression.
- B.
Cyclosporin A primarily suppresses B-lymphocytes, which are essential for producing human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) to maintain the pregnancy.
- C.
GIFT involves the transfer of an early embryo (up to 8 blastomeres) which lacks MHC antigens, making immunosuppression redundant.
- D.
Cyclosporin A stimulates the rapid phagocytosis of haploid gametes by macrophages at the ampullary-isthmic junction.
Check Your Answer
Correct Answer
Step-by-Step Solution
Explanation
How the Examiner Thinks
Comparative_Analysis
Sharpen your ability to evaluate multiple scenarios and distinguish between competing potential answers.
Concepts Behind This Question
GIFT|Cyclosporin A|T-cell activation
Why This Question Is Tricky
Common Mistakes
The 'Conceptual Pivot' is integrating three distinct NCERT chapters: Microbes (Cyclosporin A), Reproductive Health (GIFT vs ZIFT), and Human Reproduction (Pregnancy/Placenta).
Students often reflexively associate 'donor tissue' with 'Cyclosporin A' but fail to recognize the teratogenic limits of systemic immunosuppression in reproductive medicine and the precise definition of GIFT.
Quick Facts About This Question
Question Information
| Subject | Biology |
| Chapter | Reproductive Health - Class 12 |
| Concept | GIFT Applicability |
| Difficulty | 8 |
| Cognitive Load | 5 |
| Target Solve Time | 120 sec |
| Access | Free |