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Question #45544
The Question
A female patient is prescribed a hormone-releasing Intrauterine Device (e.g., LNG-20) for contraception. Which of the following physiological changes is NOT a primary mechanism by which this device prevents pregnancy?
Options
- A.
Localized hyper-progestogenic state causing the endometrium to become unsuitable for blastocyst implantation.
- B.
Systemic negative feedback on the anterior pituitary, primarily ensuring the complete cessation of ovulation.
- C.
Alteration of the cervical mucus consistency, rendering it thick and hostile to sperm penetration.
- D.
Increased phagocytosis of spermatozoa within the uterine cavity due to a foreign body inflammatory response.
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Correct Answer
Step-by-Step Solution
Explanation
How the Examiner Thinks
Regulatory_Failure
Understand how NOT, EXCEPT, and logical constraints are used to manipulate exam results.
Concepts Behind This Question
IUDs|Progesterone/Estrogen Feedback|Endometrial Alteration
Why This Question Is Tricky
Common Mistakes
Functional Confusion Trap: Students often conflate the mechanism of hormonal IUDs with oral hormonal pills.
Because both utilize progestogens, students incorrectly assume both primarily work by inhibiting ovulation via systemic negative feedback.
NCERT explicitly distinguishes them: Oral pills primarily inhibit ovulation, whereas hormone-releasing IUDs primarily make the uterus unsuitable for implantation and the cervix hostile to sperms.
Quick Facts About This Question
Question Information
| Subject | Biology |
| Chapter | Reproductive Health - Class 12 |
| Concept | IUD Physiological Mechanism |
| Difficulty | 8 |
| Cognitive Load | 5 |
| Target Solve Time | 120 sec |
| Access | Free |