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Question #45472
The Question
A 32-year-old non-pregnant female with severe liver cirrhosis presents with secondary amenorrhea (absence of menstruation). Based on the principles of the Hypothalamic-Pituitary-Gonadal (HPG) axis and endocrine clearance, which of the following is the primary physiological mechanism responsible for this condition?
Options
- A.
Decreased hepatic degradation of progesterone maintains a persistent secretory phase and exerts continuous negative feedback on gonadotropins.
- B.
Failure of the liver to synthesize cholesterol completely halts ovarian steroidogenesis, leading to immediate endometrial atrophy.
- C.
Decreased production of sex hormone-binding globulin (SHBG) by the liver directly stimulates the corpus luteum to secrete Luteinizing Hormone (LH).
- D.
Accumulation of metabolic toxins directly inhibits the endometrial response to estrogen, arresting the cycle in the proliferative phase.
Check Your Answer
Correct Answer
Step-by-Step Solution
Explanation
How the Examiner Thinks
Regulatory_Failure
Understand how NOT, EXCEPT, and logical constraints are used to manipulate exam results.
Concepts Behind This Question
Progesterone/Estrogen Feedback|Corpus Luteum Fate|Hormone Half-life Logic
Why This Question Is Tricky
Common Mistakes
Conceptual Pivot: Students often memorize the liver's role in 'synthesis' (e.g., bile, proteins) but overlook its critical role in the 'degradation' and clearance of steroid hormones.
The trap relies on failing to link hepatic metabolic clearance with the endocrine negative feedback loop.
If clearance drops, the hormone's half-life extends, turning a rhythmic cyclical process (the menstrual cycle) into a static, suppressed state due to unbroken negative feedback.
Quick Facts About This Question
Question Information
| Subject | Biology |
| Chapter | Chemical Coordination and Integration - Class 11 |
| Concept | Hormone Half-life Logic |
| Difficulty | 8 |
| Cognitive Load | 5 |
| Target Solve Time | 120 sec |
| Access | Free |