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Question #45371
The Question
A 30-year-old male presents with azoospermia. Hormonal profiling reveals normal serum levels of Luteinizing Hormone (LH) and testosterone, but drastically reduced Follicle Stimulating Hormone (FSH). The structural integrity of the hypothalamus is intact. Which of the following is the most probable cause of this isolated FSH suppression?
Options
- A.
A hypersecreting tumor of Sertoli cells producing excess Inhibin.
- B.
Hypertrophy of Leydig cells leading to excess testosterone-mediated negative feedback.
- C.
Overproduction of Androgen Binding Protein (ABP) by the seminiferous tubules.
- D.
A mutation causing continuous, non-pulsatile release of GnRH from the hypothalamus.
Check Your Answer
Correct Answer
Step-by-Step Solution
Explanation
How the Examiner Thinks
Regulatory_Failure
Understand how NOT, EXCEPT, and logical constraints are used to manipulate exam results.
Concepts Behind This Question
Sertoli Cells|FSH|Inhibin|Hypothalamic-Pituitary-Gonadal Axis
Why This Question Is Tricky
Common Mistakes
Conceptual Pivot: Students often group the negative feedback mechanisms of the male reproductive system together.
The trap relies on failing to distinguish the dual feedback pathways: Testosterone primarily inhibits LH/GnRH, whereas Inhibin selectively inhibits FSH at the anterior pituitary level.
Recognizing this functional divergence is critical for solving isolated hormonal anomalies.
Quick Facts About This Question
Question Information
| Subject | Biology |
| Chapter | Human Reproduction - Class 12 |
| Concept | Sertoli Cell Functions |
| Difficulty | 8 |
| Cognitive Load | 5 |
| Target Solve Time | 120 sec |
| Access | Free |