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Question #45350
The Question
In the context of apomixis in angiosperms—a phenomenon that effectively bypasses the meiotic chronology and syngamy characteristic of standard gametogenesis—which of the following statements is INCORRECT regarding its cytological and genetic implications?
Options
- A.
It is a form of asexual reproduction that mimics sexual reproduction, allowing for the preservation of hybrid vigor across multiple generations.
- B.
The development of an embryo directly from a nucellar cell protruding into the embryo sac results in a diploid, maternal clone.
- C.
If a diploid egg cell is formed without reduction division, the resulting apomictic seed will exhibit segregation of traits upon germination.
- D.
It evades the necessity of synchronizing male and female gamete maturation, as the embryo develops without the fusion of gametes.
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Correct Answer
Step-by-Step Solution
Explanation
How the Examiner Thinks
Evolutionary_Exception
Tackle problems where standard rules evolve or change based on specific environmental constraints.
Concepts Behind This Question
Spermatogenesis vs. Oogenesis Chronology|Apomixis Genetics
Why This Question Is Tricky
Common Mistakes
Conceptual Pivot: Students often associate 'seed formation' strictly with sexual reproduction and genetic variation.
The trap lies in failing to recognize that apomixis, despite producing a seed, is fundamentally asexual.
Therefore, Mendelian segregation of traits does not occur, which is the exact reason it is utilized to preserve hybrid characters without loss over generations.
Quick Facts About This Question
Question Information
| Subject | Biology |
| Chapter | Human Reproduction - Class 12 |
| Concept | Spermatogenesis vs. Oogenesis Chronology |
| Difficulty | 8 |
| Cognitive Load | 5 |
| Target Solve Time | 120 sec |
| Access | Free |