Before You Begin
Question #44269
The Question
A 3d-transition metal has exactly four unpaired electrons in its neutral ground state. An aqueous solution of is treated with excess to form an octahedral complex anion . The actual spin-only magnetic moment of is .
If the ionization of to strictly followed the decreasing order of values for electron removal (i.e., electrons from the subshell with the highest value are removed first), the predicted spin-only magnetic moment of would be .
Assuming the ligand field splitting affects only the d-orbitals, what are the values of and respectively?
Options
- A.
and
- B.
and
- C.
and
- D.
and
Check Your Answer
Correct Answer
Step-by-Step Solution
Explanation
How the Examiner Thinks
Exception_Exposure
Learn to identify edge cases and boundary exceptions that JEE examiners hide in math problems.
Concepts Behind This Question
Energy of Subshells (n+l rule)|Variable Oxidation State Stability|Spin-Only Magnetic Moment
Why This Question Is Tricky
Common Mistakes
The question tests the fundamental difference between the Aufbau principle (filling order based on the rule) and the ionization process (removal order based on principal quantum number ).
Students often erroneously apply the rule for electron removal, assuming 3d electrons are removed before 4s electrons because 3d is filled after 4s.
This trap is combined with Crystal Field Theory (strong field vs weak field ligands) to ensure the student can correctly determine the electronic configuration and the resulting spin-only magnetic moment in both the actual and hypothetical scenarios.
Quick Facts About This Question
Question Information
| Subject | Chemistry |
| Chapter | Structure of Atom - Class 11 Part 1 |
| Concept | Energy of Subshells (n+l rule) |
| Difficulty | 8 |
| Cognitive Load | 7 |
| Target Solve Time | 160 sec |
| Access | Free |