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Question #40969

Difficulty: 8/10 | 🟢 Free

The Question

Let f:(0,π4)→(0,∞)f: \left(0, \frac{\pi}{4}\right) \to (0, \infty) be a continuous function such that for all x∈(0,π4)x \in \left(0, \frac{\pi}{4}\right), (sin⁡x)3x≤f(x)≤(tan⁡x)2x(\sin x)^{3x} \le f(x) \le (\tan x)^{2x} Let SS be the set of all possible values of the limit L=lim⁡x→0+(f(x))1xln⁡xL = \lim_{x \to 0^+} (f(x))^{\frac{1}{x \ln x}} assuming the limit exists. Find the supremum of the set SS.

Options

  • A.

    e2e^2

  • B.

    e3e^3

  • C.

    e3/2e^{3/2}

  • D.

    e5e^5

Check Your Answer

Correct Answer

Step-by-Step Solution

Explanation

How the Examiner Thinks

Specialist

Targeted practice for niche, high-difficulty concepts that frequently appear in JEE Advanced exams.

Concepts Behind This Question

L'Hopital's Pitfall|Logarithmic Differentiation Domain|Cross Multiplication Trap

Why This Question Is Tricky

Common Mistakes

This question tests the student's sensitivity to domain-dependent signs when manipulating inequalities within limits.

Students often assume that to maximize the limit of f(x)g(x)f(x)^{g(x)}, they should maximize the base f(x)f(x), leading them to choose the upper bound (tan⁡x)2x(\tan x)^{2x} and incorrectly obtain e2e^2.

However, because the exponent g(x)=1xln⁡xg(x) = \frac{1}{x \ln x} is strictly negative as x→0+x \to 0^+, the operation of raising to the power of g(x)g(x) (or dividing by xln⁡xx \ln x after taking logarithms) reverses the inequality.

Thus, the maximum value of the limit is actually obtained by minimizing the base f(x)f(x), exposing the 'cross-multiplication trap' where students fail to account for the negative sign of the logarithmic term.

Quick Facts About This Question

Question Information

SubjectMathematics
ChapterLimits and Derivatives - Class 11
ConceptL'Hopital's Pitfall
Difficulty8
Cognitive Load7
Target Solve Time160 sec
AccessFree