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Question #40659

Difficulty: 8/10 | 🟢 Free

The Question

Let ZZ be a random variable taking values in the set {0,1,…,n}\{0, 1, \dots, n\}. The probability generating function of ZZ, defined as G(t)=∑k=0nP(Z=k)tkG(t) = \sum_{k=0}^n P(Z=k) t^k, is given by the relation: G(t)=Coefficient of x2n in (1+tx)n(1+x)2n(3n2n)G(t) = \frac{\text{Coefficient of } x^{2n} \text{ in } (1+tx)^n (1+x)^{2n}}{\binom{3n}{2n}} If W=3Z−2nW = 3Z - 2n, which of the following expressions represents the variance of WW?

Options

  • A.

    4n23n−1\frac{4n^2}{3n-1}

  • B.

    4n4n

  • C.

    4n23n+1\frac{4n^2}{3n+1}

  • D.

    2n23n−1\frac{2n^2}{3n-1}

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Correct Answer

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Explanation

How the Examiner Thinks

Monster

Ultra-high difficulty questions designed to test your limit, stamina, and deep conceptual understanding.

Concepts Behind This Question

Expansion of Products of Binomials|Bernoulli Trials Logic|Random Variable Expectation|Symmetry and Invariance

Why This Question Is Tricky

Common Mistakes

This question tests the ability to extract moments from a Probability Generating Function (PGF) defined via a binomial product expansion.

The 'Lethal Collision' occurs when calculating the variance: students often mistakenly assume the underlying trials are independent (Binomial) and compute Var(Z)=4n/9Var(Z) = 4n/9, leading to the trap option 4n4n.

However, the PGF actually encodes a Hypergeometric distribution (dependent trials without replacement).

To find the true variance, students must rigorously apply the PGF moment formulas E[Z]=G′(1)E[Z]=G'(1) and Var(Z)=G′′(1)+G′(1)−(G′(1))2Var(Z)=G''(1)+G'(1)-(G'(1))^2, forcing them to manipulate binomial coefficients and correctly account for the covariance between non-i.i.d. trials implicitly captured by the polynomial expansion.

Quick Facts About This Question

Question Information

SubjectMathematics
ChapterBinomial Theorem - Class 11
ConceptExpansion of Products of Binomials
Difficulty8
Cognitive Load7
Target Solve Time160 sec
AccessFree